Are we dealing with myth or medicine, dogma or doggy doo, science or sophistry?
What causes T wave inversion on the ECG in the setting of some subarachnoid haemorrhages?
Because the sympathetic storm induced causes subendocardial myocardial ischaemia.
What is the problem with this explanation?
Why do we not then see a similar pattern in other circumstances causing sympathetic stress, or other similar cerebral pathologies?
What are your thoughts?
We open this to our faithful readers…